Multiple Choice
Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1.
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Which statement best describes the meaning of the word frequency?
a. | The time it takes to complete one full cycle | b. | The maximum distance
a system moves away from equilibrium | c. | How often a cycle is
repeated | d. | The ratio of restoring force to friction force in an
oscillator |
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2.
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If the inertia of a system is increased and the restoring force is left the
same, the natural frequency of the system:
a. | increases. | b. | decreases. | c. | stays the
same. | d. | depends on the ratio of restoring force to friction
force. |
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3.
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The amount of damping in a system most directly affects:
a. | the lowest natural frequency a system can have. | b. | the highest natural
frequency a system can have. | c. | the largest amplitude a system can
have. | d. | the number of natural frequencies a system can have. |
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4.
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A pendulum has a natural frequency of 2.5 hertz. The pendulum is attached to a
small motor that can apply a periodic force to one end. A student conducts an experiment that
measures the amplitude of the pendulum at different frequencies of the periodic force. Which table of
data should the experiment produce?  a. | Table A | b. | Table B | c. | Table
C | d. | Table D |
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5.
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Which statement is FALSE about energy flowing in a resonant system?
a. | Friction limits the amount of kinetic energy that can accumulate in resonant
motion. | b. | The energy stored in resonant motion is proportional to the
amplitude. | c. | There is a low efficiency of energy transfer between the driving force and the
system. | d. | There is a high efficiency of energy transfer between the driving force and the
system. |
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6.
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 The picture shows a wave in water. The
wavelength is: a. | 1 meter. | b. | 2 meters. | c. | 4
meters. | d. | 8 meters. |
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7.
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Constructive interference occurs when two waves:
a. | add up to create a wave that is smaller than either single
wave. | b. | add up to create a wave that is larger than either single
wave. | c. | are moving at the same speed. | d. | have equal and opposite
amplitudes. |
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8.
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A student does an experiment by launching two wave pulses from opposite ends of
a long spring. The pulses are the same size and on opposite sides of the spring. Which diagram best
describes how the spring looks at the moment the pulses overlap each other? 
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9.
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Which of the diagrams below best illustrates the movement of a wave through a
small opening? 
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10.
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When two waves interfere with each other, the word interfere
means:
a. | one wave prevents the other wave from finishing its cycle. | b. | one wave stops
moving while the other wave passes. | c. | the motion we observe is the sum of the motions
from each individual wave. | d. | the wave with the larger amplitude grows, and
the wave with the smaller amplitude shrinks. |
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11.
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Resonance in standing waves is caused by:
a. | interference with reflections from boundaries. | b. | loss of energy due
to absorption. | c. | the product of frequency multiplied by wavelength. | d. | the wavelength being
smaller than the smallest distance between the boundaries. |
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12.
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 A student does an experiment with a
vibrating string and observes the resonance pattern shown in the diagram. The wavelength is: a. | 0.2 meters. | b. | 0.4 meters. | c. | 1
meter. | d. | 1.5 meters. |
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13.
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The energy stored in a standing wave INCREASES when:
a. | the frequency increases, and the amplitude stays the same. | b. | the wavelength
increases, and the amplitude stays the same. | c. | the amplitude decreases, and the wavelength
stays the same. | d. | the frequency decreases, and the amplitude stays the
same. |
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14.
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Vibrating strings and similar systems have resonance patterns that occur
at:
a. | the frequency equal to the speed of the wave divided by the
wavelength. | b. | multiples of the fundamental frequency. | c. | intervals of one
meter. | d. | intervals of 12 hertz. |
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15.
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Which of the following is NOT a property of sound?
a. | Amplitude | b. | Frequency | c. | Mass | d. | Wavelength |
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16.
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Ultrasound is just like ordinary sound EXCEPT:
a. | the wavelength is too long to be detected by our ears. | b. | the frequency is too
high to be detected by our ears. | c. | the amplitude is too large to be detected by
our ears. | d. | the wave has too large a mass to move through air. |
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17.
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Sounds that make up the human voice include mostly frequencies:
a. | lower than 100 hertz. | b. | between 100 and 2,000
hertz. | c. | between 2,000 and 10,000 hertz. | d. | above 10,000
hertz. |
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18.
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Which combination of frequencies produces an unpleasant oscillation in
loudness?
a. | 400 hertz and 500 hertz | b. | 400 hertz and 4,000 hertz | c. | 400 hertz and 404
hertz | d. | 400 hertz and 200 hertz |
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19.
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The wavelength of a sound wave can be calculated by:
a. | multiplying the amplitude by the frequency. | b. | dividing the
amplitude by the frequency. | c. | multiplying the speed by the
frequency. | d. | dividing the speed by the frequency. |
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20.
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Musical instruments that use vibrating strings include the piano, violin, and
guitar. These instruments are able to play different musical notes because of which physical
principle?
a. | The resonant frequency of a vibrating string depends on its
length. | b. | The speed of sound is faster than the speed of light. | c. | Sound can be
absorbed by some materials. | d. | The energy of a sound wave is proportional to
its frequency. |
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21.
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We can tell what direction a sound is coming from because:
a. | the eardrum can sense the direction as well as the frequency of
sound. | b. | the right ear hears higher frequencies than the left ear. | c. | sounds reaching one
ear are slightly out of phase with sounds reaching the other ear. | d. | the wavelength of
sounds reaching one ear is longer than the wavelength of sounds reaching the other because both ears
are separated by the width of your head. |
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22.
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 The graph shows sound from an electric
guitar when the E string is played. Use the information on the graph to decide which of the following
statements is FALSE: a. | The third harmonic has a frequency of about 960 hertz. | b. | The sixth harmonic
is louder than the fifth harmonic. | c. | The fundamental frequency is about 320
hertz. | d. | The second and third harmonics are an octave apart in
frequency. |
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23.
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Basically, light is:
a. | an applied force. | b. | a form of energy. | c. | a mass at a specific
velocity. | d. | an acceleration of matter. |
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24.
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An incandescent light bulb generates light by:
a. | heating up a piece of metal. | b. | passing high voltage electric current through a
gas. | c. | recombining atoms in a semiconductor. | d. | flashing a small laser on and off
rapidly. |
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25.
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Light travels through air at a speed of about:
a. | 300 m/sec. | b. | 300 thousand m/sec. | c. | 300 million
m/sec. | d. | 300 billion m/sec. |
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26.
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A color television produces all the colors you see on the screen by:
a. | mixing cyan, magenta, and yellow dots of light. | b. | mixing red, green,
and blue dots of light. | c. | setting each point on the screen to a specific
number. | d. | mixing specific amounts of black and white light. |
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27.
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There are three primary colors of light for human vision because we have
three:
a. | layers of the retina that absorb only these colors of light. | b. | types of rod cells
that each respond best to one of the three colors. | c. | layers of optic filters that allow only these
three colors of light to pass. | d. | types of cone cells that each respond best to
one of the three colors. |
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28.
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An imaginary arrow that points in the direction that light travels is called
a(n):
a. | image. | b. | view. | c. | ray. | d. | light pipe. |
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29.
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A ray of light is incident on a mirror. Which ray best describes the path of the
reflected light from the mirror? 
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30.
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For a light ray crossing from one material to another, Snell’s law
provides a relationship that predicts the:
a. | amount of light reflected from the surface. | b. | angle at which the
reflected light travels. | c. | extent of the scattering from the
surface. | d. | degree of bending the light ray experiences. |
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31.
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The image described in the ray diagram below is:
 a. | real, erect, and larger. | b. | real, inverted, and
smaller. | c. | virtual, inverted, and smaller. | d. | virtual, erect, and
larger. |
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32.
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An optical system with a magnification of 100 means:
a. | objects are 100 times larger than the images formed by the
system. | b. | images appear 100 times larger than the objects that produced
them. | c. | images appear a distance 100 times greater than the diameter of the
lens. | d. | the focal length of the lens is 100 times larger than its
diameter. |
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33.
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The color of light is related to an electromagnetic wave’s:
a. | frequency. | b. | amplitude. | c. | velocity. | d. | interference. |
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34.
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A colored photograph is generated by recording the differences in:
a. | only the intensity of light reaching the film. | b. | only the frequency
of light reaching the film. | c. | the frequency and intensity of light reaching
the film. | d. | the polarization of light reaching the film. |
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35.
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Although we cannot see infrared waves we can feel them as heat with our skin.
This is because the skin:
a. | absorbs the waves. | b. | refracts the waves. | c. | reflects the
waves. | d. | changes the polarization of the waves. |
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36.
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 If waves A and B are incident on the screen
at the same time and in the same place, as indicated in the picture, there will be: a. | a dark spot on the screen | b. | an increase in the frequency of the
light. | c. | a bright spot on the screen. | d. | a change in the polarization of the
light. |
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37.
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If you hold two polarizers over one eye and you cannot see through them, the two
polarizers must:
a. | have the same orientation. | b. | be perpendicular to each
other. | c. | be slightly twisted. | d. | not be able to polarize the
light. |
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38.
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A second is defined as 9,192,631,770 vibrations of a group of cesium atom not
moving linearly relative to an observer in a lab. If a group of cesium atoms were moving linearly
close to the speed of light relative to an observer in the lab, the observer would measure
9,192,631,770 vibrations of the atoms by his clock in:
a. | a second. | b. | a time longer than a
second. | c. | a time shorter than a second. | d. | an infinite amount of time since they are
moving near the speed of light. |
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39.
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The energy carried by each unit of current is called:
a. | amperage | b. | voltage | c. | resistance | d. | wattage |
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The figure below shows four different ways to connect a meter to a
circuit. 
Figure 19-2
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40.
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The diagram in Figure 19-2 which shows a meter properly connected for
measuring voltage across the light bulb is:
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The diagram below pictures three identical light bulbs, each with a resistance
of 1.0 ohm, which are connected by resistance-free wires. A 1.0 volt battery supplies energy to the
circuit.  Figure 19-1
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41.
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The reading of a meter measuring voltage whose leads are connected at points A
and D in Figure 19-1 would read:
a. | 1.0 volt | b. | 0.67 volts | c. | 0.33
volts | d. | 0.00 volts |
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42.
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In order for current to flow at 3.5 amperes through a 7.0 ohm resistor, the
energy per unit of current must be about:
a. | 0.5 volts | b. | 2.0 volts | c. | 11
volts | d. | 25 volts |
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43.
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Comparing the resistance and conductivity of a material would produce a graph
resembling: 
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44.
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The graph below which best represents the relationship between current and
voltage in an ohmic device is: 
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45.
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If there is a break at any point in a series circuit, the current will:
a. | stop everywhere in the circuit. | b. | leak out of the break
point. | c. | be decreased by one-half. | d. | continue through remaining unbroken circuit
branches. |
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46.
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When more devices are added to a parallel circuit, the total circuit
resistance:
a. | decreases. | b. | increases. | c. | stays the
same. | d. | may increase or decrease, depending on the device. |
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47.
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What is the basic difference between series and parallel circuits?
a. | Simple series circuits are not used in electrical devices; parallel circuits are used
in all electrical devices. | b. | In a series circuit, there are multiple paths
for the flow of charge; in a parallel circuit, there are only two paths. | c. | A series circuit
contains one path for the flow of charge; a parallel circuit contains more than one
path. | d. | A series circuit obeys Ohm’s law; a parallel circuit does not obey Ohm’s
law. |
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Study the circuit diagrams shown below (all bulbs are identical). 
Figure
20-1
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48.
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Which of the three circuit diagrams in Figure 20-1 represents a series
circuit?
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and II |
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49.
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A student connects six 1-ohm light bulbs in series to a 9-volt battery. What is
the total circuit current?
a. | 0.67 amperes | b. | 1.5 amperes | c. | 9
amperes | d. | 54 amperes |
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50.
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Which of the following would create a total resistance of 0.5 ohm?
a. | Four 2-ohm resistors connected in parallel | b. | Four 2-ohm resistors
connected in series | c. | Eight 2-ohm resistors connected in
parallel | d. | Two 2-ohm resistors connected in series |
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51.
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A circuit containing two identical branches has:
a. | one-half the resistance it would have if it only contained one of the
branches. | b. | twice the resistance it would have if it only contained one of the
branches. | c. | the same resistance it would have if it only contained one of the
branches. | d. | no resistance at all. |
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In the circuit shown below, three identical flashlight bulbs are screwed into
sockets and are lighted when the circuit is closed.  Figure
20-2
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52.
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Which bulb draws the least amount of current in Figure 20-2?
a. | Bulb A | b. | Bulb B | c. | Bulb
C | d. | Bulbs B and C draw an equal amount of current and draw less than bulb
A. |
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53.
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A rod and a piece of cloth are rubbed together. If the rod acquires a charge of
+1 ´ 10-6 coulomb, the cloth acquires a charge of:
a. | 0. | b. | +1 ´
10-6 coulomb. | c. | -1 ´
10-6 coulomb. | d. | +1 ´
10+6 coulombs. |
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54.
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The charge on one proton is:
a. | 9.1 ´ 10-31
coulomb. | b. | 1.7 ´ 10-27
coulomb. | c. | 1.7 ´ 10-19
coulomb. | d. | 6.3 ´ 1018
coulombs. |
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55.
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The overall speed of electrons, called the drift speed, in the copper
wire of a circuit is about:
a. | 3 ´ 108 m/sec. | b. | 1 ´ 106 m/sec. | c. | 0.01 m/sec. | d. | 0.01
cm/sec. |
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56.
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Sphere A has a charge of +2 ´
10-6 coulomb and is brought into contact with a similar sphere, B, that has a
charge of -4 ´ 10-6 coulomb. After the spheres
are separated, the charge on sphere A will be:
a. | -1 ´ 10-6
coulomb | b. | -2 ´ 10-6
coulomb | c. | +2 ´ 10-6
coulomb | d. | +6 ´ 10-6
coulomb |
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57.
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As the distance between two positively charged spheres increases, the force of
repulsion between them:
a. | increases. | b. | decreases. | c. | cannot be
determined. | d. | remains the same. |
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58.
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The electric force between two positive point charges is F with a
separation distance of d. The graph that best represents the relationship between F and
d is: 
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59.
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A capacitor is a device that:
a. | charges electrons. | b. | charges protons. | c. | stores
charge. | d. | stores resistance. |
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60.
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What unit is used to measure capacitance?
a. | Coulomb | b. | Capace | c. | Farad | d. | Ohm |
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61.
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Which of the following is NOT a way capacitance can be increased?
a. | Increase the size of a capacitor’s plates | b. | Decrease the
distance between a capacitor’s plates | c. | Use a material that provides better electrical
insulation between a capacitor’s plates | d. | Decrease the thickness of the insulating layer
between a capacitor’s plates |
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62.
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The characteristic of a material that describes its ability to exert forces on
magnets or other magnetic materials is:
a. | declination. | b. | magnetism. | c. | inclination. | d. | domination. |
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63.
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Groups of atoms in ferromagnetic materials with similar magnetic orientation are
called:
a. | spin clusters. | b. | mono-paramagnetic poles. | c. | magnetic
domains. | d. | diamagnetic lodestone. |
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64.
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The process of purposely mixing another type of
material into a semiconductor is called: a. | hole making. | b. | dipping. | c. | mixing it
up. | d. | doping. |
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65.
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A p-type semiconductor has:
a. | more free electrons than the pure crystal. | b. | less free electrons
than the pure crystal. | c. | no free electrons. | d. | no
holes. |
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66.
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A diode is made by:
a. | joining two resistors together. | b. | joining an n-type to a p-type
semiconductor. | c. | connecting a battery across an n-type semiconductor. | d. | causing a current to
flow through a p-type semiconductor. |
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67.
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An n-type semiconductor has:
a. | more free electrons than the pure crystal. | b. | less free electrons
than the pure crystal. | c. | no free electrons. | d. | no
holes. |
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68.
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The depletion region that forms where two different semiconductors touch is a
region where:
a. | there are always too many free electrons to carry current. | b. | there are never any
free electrons to carry current. | c. | the number of free electrons to carry current
depends on the voltage. | d. | there are fewer positive charges than negative
charges. |
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69.
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A transistor is made up of three alternating layers of:
a. | the same type of semiconductors. | b. | different types of
semiconductors. | c. | insulators and semiconductors. | d. | resistors and
semiconductors. |
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70.
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What type of gate gives a low output only when both inputs are low?
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71.
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 A circuit is made with three logic gates.
Which combination of inputs makes the output high? a. | A, B, and C are high, and D is low. | b. | A, B, and C are low, and D is
high. | c. | B, C and D are high, and A is low. | d. | B, C, and D are low, and A is
high. |
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72.
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If scientists were to discover a new naturally occurring element, what would
most likely be true about its number of protons?
a. | There would be more than 92. | b. | There would be fewer than
92. | c. | There would be between 56 and 72. | d. | There would be between 71 and
89. |
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73.
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What kind of thermometer relies on the expansion of fluids?
a. | Digital | b. | Alcohol | c. | Chemical | d. | Electronic |
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74.
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A gas is transferred from container A to container B without energy being lost.
The temperature and pressure are held constant. What will happen to the shape and the volume of the
gas?  a. | The shape and the volume will both change. | b. | The shape and the
volume will both remain constant. | c. | The shape will remain constant, and the volume
will change. | d. | The shape will change, and the volume will remain
constant. |
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75.
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Substance A has a higher melting point than substance B. Which of the following
is a valid conclusion regarding substances A and B?
a. | Atoms of substance A have lower mass than atoms of substance B. | b. | Atoms of substance A
have greater mass than atoms of substance B. | c. | Atoms of substance A have greater forces of
attraction between them compared to atoms of substance B. | d. | Atoms of substance A
have lower forces of attraction between them compared to atoms of substance
B. |
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76.
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How much energy is required to increase the temperature of 10.0 kilograms of
water from 25.0°C to 61.0°C?
a. | 1,500 joules | b. | 15,000 joules | c. | 150,000
joules | d. | 1,500,000 joules |
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77.
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An atom of silver has about 2.25 times more mass than an atom of titanium.
Compared to titanium, the specific heat of silver is:
a. | higher because there are more atoms per kilogram. | b. | lower because there
are more atoms per kilogram. | c. | higher because there are fewer atoms per
kilogram. | d. | lower because there are fewer atoms per kilogram. |
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78.
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Deep ocean convection occurs in patterns similar to those seen in air. What
would one predict about the water that enters a convection pattern by sinking to the bottom of the
ocean?
a. | This water is colder and less dense than the surrounding water. | b. | This water is colder
and more dense than the surrounding water. | c. | This water is warmer and less dense than the
surrounding water. | d. | This water is warmer and more dense than the
surrounding water. |
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79.
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Which statement is TRUE about thermal radiation at temperatures less than 1,000
K?
a. | Most of the power is in wavelengths corresponding to visible
light. | b. | Most of the power is in wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet
light. | c. | Most of the power is in wavelengths corresponding to infrared
light. | d. | Most of the power is in wavelengths corresponding to
ultrasound. |
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80.
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A cube of solid material measures 0.5 meters on each side. The mass of the
material is 312 kilograms. The density of the material is:
a. | 156 kg/m3 | b. | 624 kg/m3 | c. | 1,248
kg/m3 | d. | 2,496 kg/m3 |
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81.
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A construction crew has assembled scaffolding around the outside of a building
on which they are working. The metal pipes in the scaffolding are designed with a safety factor of 6.
What does this mean?
a. | The scaffolding was designed to support 6 times as much weight as it will hold under
normal working conditions. | b. | The scaffolding can hold up to 6 crew members
at one time, even on the same level. | c. | The scaffolding can remain on the site for up
to 6 days. | d. | The scaffolding has been tested and approved by 6
inspectors. |
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82.
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A rubber hose is stretched from its original length of 3.0 meters to a new
length of 4.5 meters. The strain in the rubber hose is:
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83.
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A hose is connected to an open faucet. Water is flowing from the faucet, through
the hose, and out the open end of the hose. At which point is the pressure of the water HIGHEST in
the diagram below? 
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84.
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Jan inflated the tires on her racing bicycle to a gauge pressure of 70.0 psi.
The atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. What is the absolute pressure in Jan’s tires?
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Air is moving around the airfoil following the streamlines
shown.
Figure 27-1
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85.
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Which statement accurately describes the speed of the air moving around the
airfoil shown in Figure 27-1:
a. | The air flowing at point A is moving the fastest. | b. | The air flowing at
point B is moving the fastest. | c. | The air flowing at point C is moving the
fastest. | d. | The air is flowing the same speed at all three
points. |
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86.
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Which statement accurately describes the pressure of the air moving around the
airfoil shown in Figure 27-1:
a. | The pressure at point A is the lowest. | b. | The pressure at point B is the
lowest. | c. | The pressure at point C is the lowest. | d. | The pressure is the same at all three
points. |
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87.
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Which of the following statements BEST describes pressure?
a. | Pressure is the mass per cubic meter in a fluid. | b. | Pressure is the
force per square meter exerted on a surface in contact with a fluid. | c. | Pressure is the
difference between potential energy and kinetic energy in a fluid. | d. | Pressure is the
average velocity of a fluid flowing along a streamline. |
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88.
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The variable m in the equation PV = mRT stands for:
a. | meters. | b. | molecular weight. | c. | mass. | d. | volume in
m3. |
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89.
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Charles’ law relates the pressure and temperature of a gas. According the
Charles’ law, when the temperature of a gas is REDUCED:
a. | the pressure of the gas increases if the mass and volume are kept
constant. | b. | the pressure of the gas decreases if the mass and volume are kept
constant. | c. | the pressure of the gas stays the same because pressure is independent of
temperature. | d. | the pressure and volume both increase if the mass is kept
constant. |
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90.
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A 12-liter sample of nitrogen gas is kept at a constant temperature of
27ºC. The pressure of the gas is changed from an absolute pressure of 2,300 psi to 1,150 psi.
The new volume of the gas is:
a. | 2 liters. | b. | 6 liters. | c. | 14
liters. | d. | 24 liters. |
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91.
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The size of an atom is determined by the:
a. | number of neutrons. | b. | total mass of neutrons plus
protons. | c. | size of the electron cloud. | d. | balance between the strong nuclear force and
gravity. |
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92.
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A nuclear reaction is a process that:
a. | rearranges atoms into different kinds of molecules. | b. | changes the number
of protons or neutrons in an atom. | c. | separates all the electrons from the protons in
an atom. | d. | rearranges atoms into solid, liquid, or gas phases. |
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93.
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The quantum numbers for an electron in an atom are best described as:
a. | a set of numbers that goes from zero to the total number of electrons in the
atom. | b. | a set of four numbers that describes each electron’s location and
energy. | c. | the positive and negative integers between -A and +A, where A is the atomic number.
| d. | the largest and smallest energies that are possible for an electron in the
atom. |
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94.
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A photon is best described as:
a. | the smallest possible quantity of light. | b. | a quantity of mass
equal to one atom. | c. | a particle of antimatter that releases enormous
energy when it meets normal matter. | d. | the result of adding one neutron, one proton,
and one electron. |
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95.
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Suppose you have a block with six sides. One of the sides is painted red, and
the other five sides are painted white. You spin the block and let it fall 100 times. What is the
best estimate for how many times a white side ends up on top?
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96.
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The energy released in radioactivity comes from:
a. | the conversion of mass to energy. | b. | breaking chemical bonds between
atoms. | c. | heat produced by the rapid motion of protons and neutrons. | d. | atoms rapidly
changing phase from solid to liquid. |
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97.
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An amount of sodium-25 decreases to one-fourth its original amount in 2 minutes.
What is the half-life of this radioisotope?
a. | Four minutes | b. | Two minutes | c. | One
minute | d. | Thirty seconds |
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98.
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Radioactivity is best described as:
a. | a process of combining atoms into new and different molecules. | b. | the way stereo radio
broadcasts are produced. | c. | any spontaneous nuclear reaction that releases
mass or energy. | d. | any process caused by electromagnetic radiation such as
x-rays. |
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99.
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The intensity of radiation is best described as the:
a. | speed at which the energy moves. | b. | amount of electric charge flowing per
second. | c. | quantity of energy per second flowing across each square meter of
surface. | d. | number of atoms per second crossing a one square meter
surface. |
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100.
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  What is missing in the
nuclear reaction above?
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