Name: 
 

Final Study


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
The Greenland ice sheet can be one km thick. Estimate the pressure underneath the ice. (The density of ice is 918 kg/m3.)
a.
9.0 ´ 105 Pa (9 atm)
b.
2.5 ´ 106 Pa (25 atm)
c.
4.5 ´ 106 Pa (45 atm)
d.
9.0 ´ 106 Pa (90 atm)
e.
1.2 ´ 107 Pa (120 atm)
 

 2. 
Dams at two different locations are needed to form a lake. When the lake is filled, the water level will be at the top of both dams. The Dam #2 is twice as high and twice as wide as Dam #1. How much greater is the force of the water on Dam #2 than the force on Dam #1? (Ignore atmospheric pressure; it is pushing on both sides of the dams.)
a.
2
b.
4
c.
8
d.
16
e.
32
 

 3. 
A ping-pong ball has an average density of 0.0840 g/cm3 and a diameter of 3.80 cm. What force would be required to keep the ball completely submerged under water?
a.
1.000 N
b.
0.788 N
c.
0.516 N
d.
0.258 N
e.
0.124 N
 

 4. 
A solid rock, suspended in air by a spring scale, has a measured mass of 9.00 kg. When the rock is submerged in water, the scale reads 3.30 kg. What is the density of the rock? (water density = 1 000 kg/m3)
a.
4.55 ´ 103 kg/m3
b.
3.50 ´ 103 kg/m3
c.
1.20 ´ 103 kg/m3
d.
1.58 ´ 103 kg/m3
e.
1.13 ´ 103 kg/m3
 

 5. 
As ice floats in water, about 10% of the ice floats above the surface of the water. If we float some ice in a glass of water, what will happen to the water level as the ice melts?
a.
The water level will rise 10% of the volume of the ice that melts.
b.
The water level will rise, but not as much as the 10% indicated in answer A.
c.
The water level will remain unchanged.
d.
The water level will become lower.
e.
None of the above.
 

 6. 
A large stone is resting on the bottom of the swimming pool. The normal force of the bottom of the pool on the stone is equal to the:
a.
weight of the stone.
b.
weight of the water displaced.
c.
sum of the weight of the stone and the weight of the displaced water.
d.
difference between the weight of the stone and the weight of the displaced water.
e.
weight of the water in the swimming pool.
 

 7. 
A blimp is filled with 400 m3 of helium. How big a payload can the balloon lift? (The density of air is 1.29 kg/m3; the density of helium is 0.18 kg/m3.)
a.
111 kg
b.
129 kg
c.
215 kg
d.
444 kg
e.
513 kg
 

 8. 
A block of wood has specific gravity 0.80. When placed in water, what percent of the volume of the wood is above the surface?
a.
0, the block sinks.
b.
20%
c.
25%
d.
80%
e.
95%
 

 9. 
Think of Bernoulli's equation as it pertains to an ideal fluid flowing through a horizontal pipe. Imagine that you take measurements along the pipe in the direction of fluid flow. What happens to the sum of the pressure and energy per unit volume?
a.
It increases as the pipe diameter increases.
b.
It decreases as the pipe diameter increases.
c.
It remains constant as the pipe diameter increases.
d.
No choices above are valid.
 

 10. 
A hole is poked through the metal side of a drum holding water. The hole is 18 cm below the water surface. What is the initial speed of outflow?
a.
1.9 m/s
b.
2.96 m/s
c.
3.2 m/s
d.
3.5 m/s
e.
4.2 m/s
 

 11. 
A fountain sends water to a height of 100 m. What must be the pressurization (above atmospheric) of the underground water system? (1 atm = 105 N/m2)
a.
1 atm
b.
4.2 atm
c.
7.2 atm
d.
9.8 atm
e.
12 atm
 

 12. 
How much power is theoretically available from a mass flow of 1 000 kg/s of water that falls a vertical distance of 100 m?
a.
980 kW
b.
98 kW
c.
4900 W
d.
980 W
e.
490 kW
 

 13. 
Which of the following characterizes the net force on a particle falling through a fluid at its terminal speed?
a.
It is at a maximum.
b.
It is upwards.
c.
It is downwards.
d.
It is zero.
e.
It is at a minimum.
 

 14. 
The zeroth law of thermodynamics pertains to what relational condition that may exist between two systems?
a.
zero net forces
b.
zero velocities
c.
zero temperature
d.
thermal equilibrium
e.
none of the above
 

 15. 
If it is given that 546 K equals 273°C, then it follows that 400 K equals:
a.
127°C.
b.
150°C.
c.
473°C.
d.
1 200°C.
e.
1 390°C.
 

 16. 
What is the temperature of a system in thermal equilibrium with another system made up of water and steam at one atmosphere of pressure?
a.
0°F
b.
273 K
c.
0 K
d.
100°C
e.
273°C
 

 17. 
Normal body temperature for humans is 37°C. What is this temperature in kelvins?
a.
296
b.
310
c.
393
d.
273
e.
346
 

 18. 
An interval of one Celsius degree is equivalent to an interval of:
a.
one Fahrenheit degree.
b.
one kelvin.
c.
5/9 Fahrenheit degree.
d.
5/9 kelvin.
e.
none of the above
 

 19. 
The observation that materials expand in size with an increase in temperature can be applied to what proportion of existing substances?
a.
100%
b.
most
c.
few
d.
none
e.
50%
 

 20. 
What happens to a given volume of water when heated from 0°C to 4°C?
a.
density increases
b.
density decreases
c.
density remains constant
d.
vaporizes
e.
freezes
 

 21. 
What happens to a volume of water when its temperature is reduced from 8°C to 4°C?
a.
density increases
b.
density decreases
c.
density remains constant
d.
vaporizes
e.
freezes
 

 22. 
Between 0° and 4°C, the volume coefficient of expansion for water:
a.
is positive.
b.
is zero.
c.
is becoming less dense
d.
is negative.
e.
is changing it's sign
 

 23. 
The coefficient of area expansion is:
a.
half the coefficient of volume expansion.
b.
three halves the coefficient of volume expansion.
c.
double the coefficient of linear expansion.
d.
triple the coefficient of linear expansion.
e.
none of the above.
 

 24. 
An ideal gas is confined to a container with constant volume. The number of moles is constant. By what factor will the pressure change if the absolute temperature triples?
a.
1/9
b.
1/3
c.
3.0
d.
9.0
e.
12
 

 25. 
Different units can be used for length: m and cm, and of these two, m is the larger by a factor of 100. Different units can also be used for R: (1) J/mol×K, (2) L×atm/mol×K, and (3) (N/m2)×m3/mol×K. Which of these units for R is the largest? Hint: When expressing R in each of these units, which expression has the lowest numerical factor? (1L = 10-3 m3, 1 atm = 1.01 x 105 Pa)
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
They are all equal.
e.
Both choices B and C are valid.
 

 26. 
For an ideal gas of a given mass, if the pressure remains the same and the volume increases:
a.
the average kinetic energy of the molecules decreases.
b.
the average kinetic energy of the molecules stays the same.
c.
the average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.
d.
Nothing can be determined about the molecular kinetic energy.
e.
The temperature of the gas decreases.
 

 27. 
Consider two containers with the same volume and temperature. Container One holds "dry" air—a mixture of nitrogen and oxygen. Container Two holds "moist" air. The "moist" air has the same ratio of nitrogen to oxygen molecules, but also contains water vapor. According to the ideal gas law, if the pressures are equal, the weight of the gas in Container One will be:
a.
lighter than the gas inside the second container.
b.
equal to the weight of the gas in the second container.
c.
heavier than the gas inside the second container.
d.
the answer depends on the temperature
e.
all the above are incorrect because the pressures cannot be equal.
 

 28. 
Who demonstrated that when heat is gained or lost by a system during some process, the gain or loss can be accounted for by an equivalent quantity of mechanical work done on the system?
a.
Joule
b.
Boltzmann
c.
Thompson, Count Rumford
d.
Kelvin
e.
none of the above
 

 29. 
The first experiment, which systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat, was performed by:
a.
Joule.
b.
Boltzmann.
c.
Thompson, Count Rumford.
d.
Kelvin.
e.
none of the above.
 

 30. 
If heat is flowing from a table to a block of ice moving across the table, which of the following must be true?
a.
The table is rough and there is friction between the table and ice.
b.
The ice is cooler than the table.
c.
The ice is changing phase.
d.
All three are possible, but none is absolutely necessary.
e.
The ice is melting.
 

 31. 
Sea breezes that occur near the shore are attributed to a difference between land and water with respect to what property?
a.
mass density
b.
coefficient of volume expansion
c.
specific heat
d.
emissivity
e.
none of the above
 

 32. 
Which of the following best describes a substance in which the temperature remains constant while at the same time it is experiencing an inward heat flow?
a.
gas
b.
liquid
c.
solid
d.
substance undergoing a change of state
e.
none of the above
 

 33. 
Which of the following involves the greatest heat transfer?
a.
One gram of steam at 100°C changing to water at 100°C.
b.
One gram of ice at 0°C changing to water at 0°C.
c.
One gram of water cooling from 100°C to 0°C.
d.
One gram of ice heating from -100°C to 0°C.
e.
One gram of steam cooling from 120°C to 100°C.
 

 34. 
If one's hands are being warmed by holding them to one side of a flame, the predominant form of heat transfer is what process?
a.
conduction
b.
radiation
c.
convection
d.
vaporization
e.
none of the above
 

 35. 
Consider two different rods. The greatest thermal conductivity will be in the rod with:
a.
electrons that are free to move from atom to atom.
b.
the greater specific heat.
c.
the greater cross-sectional area.
d.
the greater length.
e.
both choices A and B are valid.
 

 36. 
Which type of heating causes sunburn?
a.
conduction
b.
convection
c.
radiation
d.
vaporization
e.
all of the above
 

 37. 
In winter, light-colored clothes will keep you warmer than dark-colored clothes if:
a.
you are warmer than your surroundings.
b.
you are at the same temperature as your surroundings.
c.
you are cooler than your surroundings.
d.
you are standing in sunlight.
e.
both choices A and D are valid.
 

 38. 
Of the planets with atmospheres, which is the warmest?
a.
Venus
b.
Earth
c.
Mars
d.
Jupiter
e.
Saturn
 

 39. 
Which of the following produces greenhouse gases?
a.
burning fossil fuel
b.
digestive processes in cows
c.
automobile pollution
d.
manufacturing processes
e.
all of the above
 

 40. 
A thermodynamic process that happens very quickly tends to be:
a.
isobaric.
b.
isothermal.
c.
isovolumetric.
d.
adiabatic.
e.
both choices C and D are valid.
 

 41. 
The SI base units for spring constant are which of the following?
a.
kg·s2
b.
kg/m2
c.
kg/s2
d.
kg·m2
e.
kg·m
 

 42. 
A mass of 0.40 kg, attached to a spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m, is set into simple harmonic motion. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the mass when at its maximum displacement of 0.10 m from the equilibrium position?
a.
zero
b.
5 m/s2
c.
10 m/s2
d.
20 m/s2
e.
23 m/s2
 

 43. 
A 0.20-kg object is oscillating on a spring with a spring constant of k = 15 N/m. What is the potential energy of the system when the object displacement is 0.040 m, exactly half the maximum amplitude?
a.
zero
b.
0.006 0 J
c.
0.012 J
d.
2.5 J
e.
3.4 J
 

 44. 
A 0.20-kg block rests on a frictionless level surface and is attached to a horizontally aligned spring with a spring constant of 40 N/m. The block is initially displaced 4.0 cm from the equilibrium point and then released to set up a simple harmonic motion. A frictional force of 0.3 N exists between the block and surface. What is the speed of the block when it passes through the equilibrium point after being released from the 4.0-cm displacement point?
a.
0.45 m/s
b.
0.63 m/s
c.
0.80 m/s
d.
1.2 m/s
e.
1.4 m/s
 

 45. 
An object is attached to a spring and its frequency of oscillation is measured. Then another object is connected to the first object, and the resulting mass is four times the original value. By what factor is the frequency of oscillation changed?
a.
1/4
b.
1/2
c.
1/16
d.
2
e.
4
 

 46. 
The kinetic energy of the bob on a simple pendulum swinging in simple harmonic motion has its maximum value when the displacement from equilibrium is at what point in its swing?
a.
zero displacement
b.
1/4 the amplitude
c.
1/2 the amplitude
d.
3/4 the amplitude
e.
equal the amplitude
 

 47. 
Tripling the mass of the bob on a simple pendulum will cause a change in the frequency of the pendulum swing by what factor?
a.
0.33
b.
1.0
c.
3.0
d.
9.0
e.
12
 

 48. 
By what factor should the length of a simple pendulum be changed if the period of vibration were to be tripled?
a.
1/9
b.
0.33
c.
3.0
d.
9.0
e.
12
 

 49. 
A simple pendulum has a period of 2.0 s. What is the pendulum length? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
a.
0.36 m
b.
0.78 m
c.
0.99 m
d.
2.4 m
e.
3.5 m
 

 50. 
When car shock absorbers wear out and lose their damping ability, what is the resulting oscillating behavior?
a.
underdamped
b.
critically damped
c.
overdamped
d.
hyperdamped
 

 51. 
If the frequency of a traveling wave train is increased by a factor of three in a medium where the speed is constant, which of the following is the result?
a.
amplitude is one third as big
b.
amplitude is tripled
c.
wavelength is one third as big
d.
wavelength is tripled
e.
both choices A and C are valid.
 

 52. 
The wavelength of a traveling wave can be calculated if one knows the:
a.
frequency.
b.
speed and amplitude.
c.
amplitude and frequency.
d.
frequency and speed.
e.
speed.
 

 53. 
If a radio wave has speed 3.00 ´ 108 m/s and frequency 94.7 MHz, what is its wavelength?
a.
8.78 m
b.
1.20 m
c.
2.50 m
d.
3.17 m
e.
4.21 m
 

 54. 
The superposition principle has to do with which of the following?
a.
effects of waves at great distances
b.
the ability of some waves to move very far
c.
how displacements of interacting waves add together
d.
relativistic wave behavior
e.
both choices A and C are valid.
 

 55. 
If a wave pulse is reflected from a free boundary, which of the following choices best describes what happens to the reflected pulse?
a.
becomes inverted
b.
remains upright
c.
halved in amplitude
d.
doubled in amplitude
e.
both choices B and C are valid.
 

 56. 
Consider a vibrating string that makes a sound wave that moves through the air. As the guitar string moves up and down, the air molecules that are a certain horizontal distance from the string will move:
a.
up and down.
b.
toward and away from the guitar string.
c.
back and forth along the direction of the length of the string.
d.
in circles around the guitar string.
e.
none of the above.
 

 57. 
The speed of sound in air is a function of which one of the following?
a.
wavelength
b.
frequency
c.
temperature
d.
amplitude
e.
none of the above.
 

 58. 
What is the intensity level of a sound with intensity of 5.0 ´ 10-10 W/m2? (I0 = 10-12 W/m2)
a.
74 dB
b.
54 dB
c.
2.7 dB
d.
27 dB
e.
32 dB
 

 59. 
If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100, how is the decibel level changed? The new decibel level will be:
a.
two units greater.
b.
double the old one.
c.
ten times greater.
d.
twenty units greater.
e.
ten units greater.
 

 60. 
When I stand halfway between two speakers, with one on my left and one on my right, a musical note from the speakers gives me constructive interference. How far to my left should I move to obtain destructive interference?
a.
one-fourth of a wavelength
b.
half a wavelength
c.
one wavelength
d.
one and a half wavelengths
e.
two wavelengths
 

 61. 
For a standing wave on a string the wavelength must equal:
a.
the distance between adjacent nodes.
b.
the distance between adjacent antinodes.
c.
twice the distance between adjacent nodes.
d.
the distance between supports.
e.
both choices C and D are valid.
 

 62. 
What phenomenon is created by two tuning forks, side by side, emitting frequencies, which differ by only a small amount?
a.
resonance
b.
interference
c.
the Doppler effect
d.
beats
e.
none of the above.
 

 63. 
Two tuning forks sounding together result in a beat frequency of 3 Hz. If the frequency of one of the forks is 256 Hz, what is the frequency of the other?
a.
262 Hz or 250 Hz
b.
105 Hz
c.
259 Hz or 253 Hz
d.
85 Hz
e.
165 Hz
 

 64. 
According to present theories of light, in some experiments light seems to be:
a.
composed of particles which can neither be created nor destroyed.
b.
a particle whose quantized energy depends on its velocity.
c.
a wave that moves from one place to another if there is material to vibrate.
d.
deflected due to repulsion from very massive objects.
e.
none of the above.
 

 65. 
Newton's theory of light treated light as ____ while Young demonstrated that light behaved as ____ with ____behavior.
a.
particles, waves, refractive
b.
particles, waves, interference
c.
waves, particles, interference
d.
waves, particles, refractive
 

 66. 
The photoelectric effect was discovered by:
a.
Maxwell.
b.
Einstein.
c.
Hertz.
d.
Planck.
e.
Millikan.
 

 67. 
A light ray in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary at an angle of 30.0º and is refracted in the glass at an angle of 21.0º with the normal. Find the index of refraction of the glass.
a.
2.13
b.
1.74
c.
1.23
d.
1.40
e.
1.87
 

 68. 
When light passing through a prism undergoes dispersion, the effect is a result of:
a.
different wavelengths traveling at different speeds.
b.
different wavelengths having different indices of refraction.
c.
different wavelengths refracting differently.
d.
All of the above.
e.
None of the above.
 

 69. 
Which of the following describes what will happen to a light ray incident on a glass-to-air boundary at greater than the critical angle?
a.
total reflection
b.
total transmission
c.
partial reflection, partial transmission
d.
partial reflection, total transmission
e.
interference
 

 70. 
If total internal reflection occurs at a glass-air surface:
a.
no light is refracted.
b.
no light is reflected.
c.
light is leaving the air and hitting the glass with an incident angle greater than the critical angle.
d.
light is leaving the air and hitting the glass with an incident angle less than the critical angle.
e.
all the light is absorbed
 

 71. 
When the reflection of an object is seen in a plane mirror, the distance from the mirror to the image depends on:
a.
the wavelength of light used for viewing.
b.
the distance from the object to the mirror.
c.
the distance of both the observer and the object to the mirror.
d.
the size of the object.
e.
the size of the mirror.
 

 72. 
An object is placed 10 cm in front of a mirror and an image is formed that has a magnification of 2. Which of the following statements is true?
a.
The focal length of the mirror is 30 cm.
b.
The image is real.
c.
There is not enough information to select the correct answer.
d.
This is the only true statement.
e.
There is more than one true statement.
 

 73. 
An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a thin convex lens along its axis. The lens has a focal length of 10 cm. What are the values, respectively, of the image distance and magnification?
a.
60 cm and 2.0
b.
15 cm and 2.0
c.
60 cm and -0.50
d.
15 cm and -0.50
e.
60 cm and -0.25
 

 74. 
An image is formed using a convex lens, the image being 15 cm past the lens. A second lens is placed 25 cm past the first lens and another image is formed, this time 10 cm past the second lens. Which of the following statements is always true?
a.
Both of the lenses have positive focal lengths.
b.
The first lens is diverging and the second is converging.
c.
The first lens is converging and the second is diverging.
d.
None of the above statements is true.
e.
More information is needed.
 

 75. 
Reducing the lens aperture size is a scheme one can use to reduce the occurrence of which of the following effects?
a.
spherical aberration
b.
mirages
c.
chromatic aberration
d.
light scattering
e.
light polarization
 

 76. 
A Young's double slit has a slit separation of 2.50 ´ 10-5 m on which a monochromatic light beam is directed. The resultant bright fringes on a screen 1.00 m from the double slit are separated by 2.30 ´ 10-2 m. What is the wavelength of this beam? (1 nm = 10-9 m)
a.
373 nm
b.
454 nm
c.
575 nm
d.
667 nm
e.
759 nm
 

 77. 
In order to produce a sustained interference pattern by light waves from multiple sources, which of the following conditions must be met?
a.
sources are coherent
b.
sources are monochromatic
c.
Both choices above are valid.
d.
None of the choices above are valid.
 

 78. 
Two beams of coherent light are shining on the same piece of white paper. With respect to the crests and troughs of such waves, darkness will occur on the paper where:
a.
the crest from one wave overlaps with the crest from the other.
b.
the crest from one wave overlaps with the trough from the other.
c.
the troughs from both waves overlap.
d.
darkness cannot occur as the two waves are coherent.
e.
darkness occurs anyway.
 

 79. 
The blue tint of a coated camera lens is largely caused by what effects?
a.
diffraction
b.
refraction
c.
polarization
d.
interference
e.
absorption
 

 80. 
When light shines on a lens placed on a flat piece of glass, interference occurs which causes circular fringes called Newton's rings. The two beams that are interfering come:
a.
from the top and bottom surface of the lens.
b.
from the top surface of the lens and the top surface of the piece of glass.
c.
from the bottom surface of the lens and the top surface of the piece of glass.
d.
from the top and bottom surface of the flat piece of glass.
e.
from the top surface of the lens and the bottom surface of the piece of glass.
 

 81. 
The center spot of Newton's rings is dark. This destructive interference occurs because:
a.
the two beams travel distances that are different by half a wavelength.
b.
both waves change phase by 180º as they are reflected.
c.
one beam changes phase by 180º when it is reflected.
d.
both waves have a trough.
e.
the two beams travel distances that are different by double wavelength.
 

 82. 
A diverging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?
a.
farsightedness
b.
glaucoma
c.
nearsightedness
d.
astigmatism
e.
cataract
 

 83. 
A diverging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?
a.
myopia
b.
presbyopia
c.
hyperopia
d.
astigmatism
e.
glaucoma
 

 84. 
Glaucoma occurs because:
a.
the eye cannot accommodate properly.
b.
the shape or size of the eye is not normal.
c.
there is too much pressure in the fluid in the eyeball.
d.
the lens is partially or totally opaque.
e.
the optic nerve is worn out or damaged.
 

 85. 
If the objective lens of a compound microscope is replaced with a lens of double the focal length while the eyepiece also has its focal length doubled, what will happen to the overall magnification of the microscope?
a.
This will result in no change in the magnification.
b.
The magnification doubles.
c.
The magnification quadruples.
d.
The magnification decreases.
e.
The magnification squares.
 

 86. 
If different filters are used with an astronomical telescope, which of the following would give the best resolution?
a.
red
b.
green
c.
blue
d.
yellow
e.
All yield the same resolution.
 

 87. 
Which characterizes the main result of the Michelson-Morley experiment?
a.
verified the existence of ether
b.
involved measuring the speed of sound from a moving source
c.
detected no difference in the speed of light regardless of speed of the source relative to observer
d.
was designed purposely to verify Einstein's theory of relativity
e.
verified the corpuscular behavior of light.
 

 88. 
The experiment that dispelled the idea that light travels in the ether is called the:
a.
Michelson-Morley experiment.
b.
Hafele and Keating experiment.
c.
Fitzgerald-Kennedy experiment.
d.
Fermi-Dirac experiment.
e.
twin paradox.
 

 89. 
An earth observer sees a spaceship at an altitude of 980 m moving downward toward the earth at a speed of 0.800 c. What is the spaceship's altitude as measured by an observer in the spaceship?
a.
1 630 m
b.
1 270 m
c.
893 m
d.
588 m
e.
677 m
 

 90. 
A boxcar without a front or a back is moving toward the right. Two electrons move through the boxcar, one moving from back to front toward the right, the other moving from front to back toward the left. According to me, each electron is moving with a speed of 0.8 c and the boxcar is moving with a speed of 0.6 c. A passenger in the boxcar records how long it takes each electron to pass from one end of the boxcar to the other end. According to the passenger, which took longer?
a.
the electron going from back to front
b.
the electron going from front to back
c.
they both took the same time
d.
since nothing can go faster than light, an electron cannot move toward the left with a speed of 0.8 c through a boxcar moving toward the right with a speed of 0.6 c
e.
it depends on whether the passenger is sitting at the front or the back of the boxcar
 

 91. 
As the speed of an object increases, its relativistic momentum:
a.
stays the same as its classical momentum.
b.
increases more than its classical momentum.
c.
increases less than it classical momentum.
d.
does not change since momentum is a conserved quantity.
e.
decreases since relativistic energy is conserved.
 

 92. 
Two identical boats can travel through still water at 3.00 m/s. They start from the same point on the bank of a river and travel the same distance from the starting point and then return to the starting point. One boat takes a path parallel (and anti-parallel) to the current while the other has a path that is perpendicular to the current. It takes one boat twice as long as the other boat. How fast is the current in the river flowing?
a.
1.50 m/s
b.
2.12 m/s
c.
2.25 m/s
d.
2.60 m/s
e.
3.70 m/s
 

 93. 
Classical theories predict that most of the energy from a black body should be radiated:
a.
as thermal radiation in the infrared region.
b.
at the wavelength given by Wien's displacement law.
c.
as ultraviolet light.
d.
as gamma rays.
e.
a black body should not radiate.
 

 94. 
The ultraviolet catastrophe predicts that:
a.
all objects should radiate extreme amounts of ultraviolet light.
b.
as an object gets hotter its light will change from dull red to blue white.
c.
a black body can absorb an infinite amount of radiation if the radiation is in the ultraviolet region.
d.
the radiated energy approaches zero as the wavelength approaches zero.
e.
a black body will be radiating energy in the ultraviolet region until its temperature approaches to the absolute zero.
 

 95. 
Of the following photons, which has the highest energy?
a.
infrared
b.
microwave
c.
visible
d.
ultraviolet
e.
radio
 

 96. 
A photon absorbed by an electron will give up more energy to the electron if the photon:
a.
is not spread out over many electrons.
b.
is moving faster.
c.
is moving slower.
d.
has a higher frequency.
e.
An electron cannot absorb a photon.
 

 97. 
Sources of red, blue, and yellow light each emit light with a power of 50 mW. Which source emits more photons per second?
a.
the red source
b.
the blue source
c.
the yellow source
d.
They all emit the same number per second.
e.
Both red and blue sources emit the same number, and the yellow one emits less.
 

 98. 
X-ray production occurs in which process?
a.
photons hitting a metal, emitting electrons
b.
electrons hitting a metal, emitting photons
c.
photons hitting a metal, emitting x-rays
d.
electrons hitting a metal and scattering elastically
e.
X-rays hitting electrons, emitting secondary x-rays
 

 99. 
The Compton experiment demonstrated which of the following when an x-ray photon collides with an electron?
a.
momentum is conserved
b.
energy is conserved
c.
momentum and energy are both conserved
d.
wavelength of scattered photon equals that of incident photon
e.
direction of a photon's motion after scattering is absolutely unpredictable
 

 100. 
According to the de Broglie hypothesis, which of the following statements is applicable to the wavelength of a moving particle?
a.
directly proportional to its energy
b.
directly proportional to its momentum
c.
inversely proportional to its energy
d.
inversely proportional to its momentum
e.
directly proportional to its mass
 

 101. 
The gamma radiation first classified by Rutherford was in fact which of the following?
a.
helium nuclei
b.
high energy quanta
c.
electrons
d.
positrons
e.
neutrons
 

 102. 
Tritium has a half-life of 12.3 years. What proportion of its original radioactivity will a sample have after 9 years?
a.
0.55
b.
0.60
c.
0.73
d.
0.84
e.
0.99
 

 103. 
When radium-224 emits an alpha particle, the remaining daughter nucleus is which of the following?
a.
lead-213
b.
actinium-215
c.
radon-220
d.
bismuth-215
e.
polonium-209
 

 104. 
Of the main types of radiation emitted from naturally radioactive isotopes, which of the following is the most penetrating?
a.
alpha
b.
beta (electron)
c.
gamma
d.
beta (positron)
e.
None of the above
 

 105. 
The Q of a nuclear reaction is equal to:
a.
the total charge involved.
b.
energy associated with the change in mass.
c.
energy associated with momentum conservation.
d.
the exothermic endothermy.
e.
the reaction threshold
 



 
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